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Cultural Anthropology (Mid-term Exam)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Instruction: Read the questions carefully and choice the correct answer. Write the letter of your answer in your examination booklet. Good luck.

 

1. It deals with the scientific study of man, his works, his body, his behavior and values, in time and space.

a) cultural anthropology          b) sociology     c) anthropology           d) humanities

 

2. What is the main concern in the study of anthropology?

a) politics                                 b) religion        c) man                         d) social life

 

3. It deals with man’s biological foundations, race evolution, racial classifications, and differentiation.

a) physical anthropology    b) cultural anthropology      c) archaeology    d) linguistics

 

4. It deals with one of the most significant and revolutionary concepts in the social sciences- the concept of culture.

a) sociology     b) social life                 c) archaeology            d) cultural anthropology

 

5. It is the way of life of a people which had been learned, shared, and transmitted from generation to another.

a) culture                      b) social heritage        c) religion                    d) family life

 

6. Which of the following are the sub disciplines of physical or biological anthropology?

a) racial history which deals with the study of the nature of races.

b) human genetics which deals with the study of various ways of inheritance that take

place in man.

c) paleontology which deals with the origin of man.

d) all of the above

 

7. A pure description of the culture of a people or an ethnic group.

a) ethnography            b) ethnology                c) heritage                   d) social description

 

8. It is an analysis, comparison, and contrast of cultures of people.

a) ethnography            b) ethnology                c) heritage                   d) social description

 

9. Which of the following is a sub field of socio-cultural anthropology?

a) archaeology            b) ethnology                c) linguistics                  d) all of the choices

 

10) Remnants of the past that have organic life which withstood the test of time and forces of nature.

a) artifacts                   b) fossils                       c)debris                        d) remains

 

11) Man-made and man conceived remains of pre-historic times that have endured through time.

a) artifacts                   b) fossils                       c)debris                        d) remains

 

12) Concerned with the study of man’s culture and society in the past, as far back in time as prehistoric times.

a) zoology                   b) sociology                 c) history                      d) archaeology

 

13) Studies the remains of recent people who left written records.

a) historical archaeology    b) biography      c) excavation work      d) historical discovery

 

14) The systematic study of recorded and unrecorded languages all over the world.

a) language interpretation  b) linguistics  c) language translation d) art of communication

 

15) The study of how languages change over time and how they may be related.

a) language interpretation                 b) language translation

c) art of communication                       d) historical linguistics

 

16) The study of how language is used in actual speech.

a) descriptive linguistics  b) structural linguistics    c) historical linguistics   d) sociolinguistics

 

17) What is the common denominator in the study of anthropology?

a) The use of the scientific approach and method in the study of human beings and their

b) The written historical facts of the remains and fossils of the human beings.

c) The values, customs and traditions which were handed down from generation to

d) The use of data and information gathered.

 

18) It concentrates on the process occurring within the individual.

a) humanities               b) physical reaction     c) psychology               d) stimulus

 

19) It focuses on the study of past events.

a) geology                  b) history                      c) ethnography            d) geography

 

20) What is the origin of Anthropology?

a) It started with the study of primitive or non-literate groups, considered exotic and

queer by Westerners.

b) It started as the study of Western civilization and later, of advanced and

contemporary societies.

c) It started with the study of social consequences of artifacts, group structure, and belief

system in the old civilization.

d) Anthropology has no origin at all. It just become as a discipline of science incidental to

the study of the society.

 

21) Includes physical objects or artifacts- things that human beings create by altering the natural environment.

a) social heritage        b) material culture       c) remains                    d) non-material culture

 

22) Consists of words people use, the habits they follow, the ideas, customs, behavior, of any society profess and to which they strive to conform.

a) language                b) material culture       c) tradition                   d) non-material culture

 

23) These are guides or models of behavior which tell us what is proper and which are appropriate or inappropriate, right or wrong.

a) norms                       b) moral                       c) conduct                     d) values

 

24) This involves staying and living in the community being studied.

a) observation b) participant observation  c) analysis of data    d) empirical investigation

 

25) It makes use of different senses to study a social phenomenon or group of persons.

a) observation            b) social interaction     c) sight seeing              d) interview

 

26) This may be applied when the researcher is in need of background information about past events of the people or social phenomena.

a) archival research                 b) content analysis

c) recording of information      d) historical method

 

27) This utilizes old records and document kept in archives.

a) historical research     b) data analysis        c) archival research      d) recording of facts

 

28) This is a systematic technique for analyzing message context and message handing.

a) message contexting    b) content analysis    c) recording of facts    d) interview analysis

 

29) This method involves noting the similarities and differences between societies with regard to such particular aspects as marriage and the family, child rearing, and the like.

a) cultural analysis                  b) structured research

c) applied groups                    d) comparative method

 

30) Is a data gathering technique very commonly adopted in sociology and anthropology.

a) interview                 b) observation             c) recording                 d) analysis

 

II. ENUMERATION

 

31-34) What are the requirements in the conduct of scientific investigations?

35-37) What are the standard procedures that should followed in scientific investigations?

38-44) What are the techniques for data gathering?

 

III. TRUE OR FALSE

Write true if the statement is correct, and false if the statement is otherwise. Write the answer in your examination booklet.

 

45. __________ The study of anthropology introduces us to various concepts and principles vital

in our understanding of culture.

46. __________ Through the study of anthropology, we are able to see ourselves as part of a larger social pattern. But this do not expands our view of the world, in order to appreciate society and culture better.

47. __________ The study of anthropology will make us understand better why people of different groups and culture behave the way they do. Through this understanding, we may be able to adjust ourselves to their peculiar ways and patterns.

48. __________ The study of anthropology will give us the insight that our group is different from others. Through this, we may be led to respect the identity and unique nature of  other groups and members of such group.

49. __________ The study of anthropology cannot, however, promote national unity and  progress, and international understanding since man by nature has cultural ambiguity.

50. __________ The word anthropology is taken from two Greek words logos, which means study, or logia to study, and anthropos, which means man and animals.

-END-

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Master in Public Administration (Final Exam)

1. Discuss gerrymandering.

2. What are the underlying aims why the acts of creation, division, merger, etc. of any local unit can be done only by statutory enactment of Congress and subject to the approval of the inhabitants of the locality concerned through a plebiscite?

3. Discuss the functions of metropolitan political subdivisions vis-à-vis the local government unit.

4. May local government units allow to group themselves purportedly for collective action to solve common problems?

5. What are the compositions and conditions for creation of autonomous regions?

6. What are the tests of a valid ordinance?

7. May a local government unit exercise the power of eminent domain? Discuss.

8. Does police power delegated to Local Government Units? Discuss.

9. A Local Government Unit is a political subdivision of the State. What does it mean?

10. The practical side to development through a decentralized local government system certainly concerns the matter of financial resources. With its broadened powers and increased responsibilities, a local government unit must now operate on a much wider scale. More extensive operations, in turn, entail more expenses. Understandably, the vesting of duty, responsibility and accountability in every local government unit is accompanied with a provision for reasonably adequate resources to discharge its powers and effectively carry out its functions. Availment of such resources is effectuated through the vesting in every local government unit of (1) the right to create and broaden its own source of revenue; (2) the right to be allocated a just share in national taxes, such share being in the form of internal revenue allotments (IRAs); and (3) the right to be given its equitable share in the proceeds of the utilization and development of the national wealth, if any, within its territorial boundaries.

Give your comment.

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Total Quality Management (Preliminary Examination)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. In this type of examination, encircle the letter bearing the correct answer. In the event that you are going to change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first answer.

 

1. The totality of features and characteristics that bear on the ability of a product or service to satisfy a given need.

a) conformance

b) quality management

c) standard

d) quality

 

2. Quality is defined by the ___________, and as such will change over time, often in unpredictable ways.

a) management

b) costumer

c) organization

d) market

e) a and b

 

3. It can meet or exceed the whole range of customer expectations, some of which may be unspoken.

a) good quality

b) standardize

c) customary

d) quality service

e) a and d

 

4. It is the approach and process of getting total quality.

a) organization restructuring

b) strategic  management

c) strategic planning

d) quality management

 

5. This principle of quality management focus on the commitment of leaders, their active driving of strategy, and constant positive engagement with its application.

a) customer focus

b) strategic focus

c) process focus

d) none of these

 

6. Quality control era.

a) 1900-1930

b) 1930-1950

c) 1950-1970

d) 1970-1990

 

7. What is the strength of Total Quality Management?

a) the principles it laid down for how to transform an organization.

b) the need for interpretation and wide range of approaches from the good to bad, and even the ugly which it spawned in the organization.

c) the variability of results seen by the customers to different organizational approaches to its products or services.

d) a and b

 

8. This principle of quality management is fundamentally basing on this method: plan, do, study, act- where decisions are evaluated based on evidence and data, and these evaluations are, in turn, used to drive further iterations of action.

a) continual improvement, innovation and learning

b) process focus

c) scientific focus

d) systems thinking

 

9. Standards and Awards era.

a) 1900-1930

b) 1930-1950

c) 1950-1970

d) 1970-1990

 

10. It concerns with producing order and consistency through actions such as planning, budgeting, organizing and controlling.

a) leadership

b) management

c) strategic management

d) quality management

 

11. It is concerned with producing change and movement by vision building, motivating, aligning people and communicating.

a) leadership

b) management

c) strategic management

d) quality management

 

12. Total Quality Management era.

a) 1900-1930

b) 1930-1950

c) 1950-1970

d) 1970-1990

 

13. This principle of quality management has its integrative qualities. By integrating the key concepts and seeing the organization in a holistic way, it can create synergies between the elements of the thinking and deliver a whole is much greater than the sum of its parts.

a) continual improvement, innovation and learning

b) process focus

c) scientific focus

d) systems thinking

 

14. Why quality management?

a) Organizations have tended to emphasize control and management over vision and motivation notwithstanding their poor response in changing environments.

b) A list of picayune benefits to be derived from change.

c) There were critique of existing practices to demonstrate why the status quo is an inviable option.

d) all of the above

e) b and c

 

15. How do the product-out concept and market-in concept differs?

a) conformance to the company standards

b) satisfying the customer

c) behavioral implications

d) producing good product

 

16. This approach will be compromised with an unexpected change to customer expectations, and has lead to the demise of many organizations when a better alternative hits the market causing customers to suddenly expect more of the product.

a) market-in concept

b) burning platforms

c) cost-cutting

d) product-out concept

 

17. This mentality led to a serious underestimation of the potential and contribution of employees across the organization, particularly in blue-collar positions.

a) lack of leadership

b) human resources mentality

c) lack of systems thinking

d) unimproved communication

 

18. It refer to items which have a direct financial value or are monetizable in some sense.

a) profit

b) income benefits

c) market-in product

d) tangible benefits

 

19. What is the most obvious tangible benefit of quality improvement?

a) reduction of costs associated with non-quality

b) profit

c) income benefits

d) good quality product

 

20. Standardization, Mass Production and Quality Assurance era

a) 1900-1930

b) 1930-1950

c) 1950-1970

d) 1970-1990

 

21. It arise from defects that actually search the final customer.

a) internal failure costs

b) external failure costs

c) prevention costs

d) appraisal costs

 

22. It arise from detecting defects via test, audit and inspection.

a) internal failure costs

b) external failure costs

c) prevention costs

d) appraisal costs

 

23. It from efforts to keep defects from occurring at all.

a) internal failure costs

b) external failure costs

c) prevention costs

d) appraisal costs

 

24. What is an example of prevention costs?

a) product design verification

b) rework costs

c) quality audit

d) product recall

e) none of these

 

25. What is an example of appraisal costs?

a) product design verification

b) rework costs

c) quality audit

d) product recall

e) none of these

 

26. What is an example of an internal failure costs?

a) product design verification

b) rework costs

c) quality audit

d) product recall

e) none of these

 

27. What is an example of external failure costs?

a) product design verification

b) rework costs

c) quality audit

d) product recall

e) none of these

 

28. What is the principal benefit of the cost of quality system?

a) It facilitates senior management commitment to unimproved activities and, if sufficiently detailed, suggests priority areas for improvement.

b) It provides complex indication of the scale of opportunity presented by the current poor quality performance and a guide as to the level or resources which can be committed.

c) It provides lack of effective measure of improvement if re-calculated after the improvement has been made.

d) none of the above

 

29. Put simply, this is the waste resulting from a failure to achieve a right-first time way of working.

a) over production

b) reworking

c) processing

d) motion

e) none of these

30. Over-engineering is a good example of this form of waste. It is where additional operations are performed that do not add any value for the customer.

a) over production

b) reworking

c) processing

d) motion

e) none of these

 

31. A typical example of this form of waste is found when dealing with components or paperwork in batches.

a) inventory

b) correction

c) inefficiency

d) waiting

e) none of these

 

32. This is the movement of materials, components or paperwork around a business; in order that the various value adding operations can be performed.

a) motion

b) processing

c) correction

d) over-production

e) none of these

 

33. This not only ties up working capital, but adds storage costs and reduces the businesses flexibility in being able to bring in new products.

a) inefficiency

b) waiting

c) processing

d) inventory

e) none of these

 

34. This is where more than is required is produced, usually under the misapprehension that the company is ‘saving’ set-up time.

a) production

b) conveyance

c) motion

d) waiting

e) none of these

 

35. This is an ergonomic factor where employees are forced to undertake unnecessary movement in order to perform their tasks.

a) production

b) conveyance

c) motion

d) waiting

e) none of these

 

II. TRUE OR FALSE. Write true in the blank if the statement is correct and false if the statement is otherwise.

 

_____________36. Cost of quality systems require trust to be effective.

_____________37. Quality management has many benefits that are difficult to quantify in purely financial terms but are nevertheless relevant to organizational competitiveness.

_____________38. Fewer defects, less reliable products, reduced lead times and products better matched to customer requirements should all be the natural consequences of an effective Quality Management system.

_____________39. Reducing waste will allow organizations to increase the environmental footprint of the organization.

_____________40. Quality remains at the top of the agenda for many organizations.

_____________41. If we wish to create value for our customers we need to become obsessive about understanding our customers and their requirements and expectations.

_____________42. Quality Management is fundamentally about people.

_____________43. Quality is defined by the management, and as such will change over time, often in unpredictable ways.

_____________44. As a complex concept, quality can only be addressed by the whole organization working together.

_____________45. Quality is associated with creating customer service.

 

III. ENUMERATION.

 

46-50. What are the principles central to the practice of Quality Management?

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Philippine Government and New Constitution (Preliminary Examination)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. In this type of examination, encircle the letter bearing the correct answer. In the event that you are going to change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first answer. Good luck.

 

1. It is a social science discipline concerned with the study of the state, nation, government, and politics and policies of government.

a) sociology

b) public administration

c) political science

d) public law

2. Is a community of persons more or less numerous,, permanently occupying a definite portion of territory, having a government of their own to which the great the body of inhabitants render obedience, and enjoying freedom from external control.

a) society

b) people

c) state

d) territory

 

3. It refers to the agency to which the will of the state is formulated, expressed and carried out.

a) executive branch

b) legislative branch

c) judiciary

d) government

 

4. A group of people bound together by certain characteristics such as common social origin, language, customs, and traditions, and who believe that they are one and distinct from others.

a) ethnic group

b) state

c) society

d) nation

 

5. It is a form of government by which political power is exercised by a majority of the people.

a) direct democracy

b) democracy

c) republican democracy

d) unitary government

 

6. What do you call the settlements or villages that the Philippines was composed of prior to the arrival of the Spaniards?

a) sitio

b) balangay

c) maharlika, timawa, aliping namamahay, aliping sagigilid

d) barangay

 

7. During the Spanish period, who exercises the powers of the government?

a) gobernadorcillo

b) royal audiencia

c) governor-general

d) royal patron

 

8. The secret society that precipitated the Philippines glorious revolution on August 26, 1896. It was organized by Andres Bonifacio together with a group of Filipino patriots.

a) Biak-na- Bato

b) Kataastaasang Rebolusyonario

c) Katipunan

d) Konselyo

 

9. A republic that was established by Gen. Emilio Aguinaldo on November 01, 1897.

a) Biak-na-Bato Republic

b) Philippine Independence

c) KKK

d) Dictatorial government

 

10. This Constitution was the first democratic constitution ever promulgated in the whole of Asia.

a) The Philipine Constitution

b) 1935 Constitution

c) Pact of Biak-na-Bato

d) Malolos Constitution

 

11. This government was established in the Philippines pursuant to an act of the United States Congress on March 24, 1934, commonly known as the Tydings-McDuffie Law.

a) Civil Government

b) Military Government

c) Commonwealth Government

d) Malolos Government

 

12. This government was established on October 14, 1943 following the Philippine Executive Commission. It was inaugurated with Jose P. Laurel as President.

a) Japanese Military Administration

b) Japanese-sponsored Republic of the Philippines

c) Commonwealth Government

d) Civil Government

 

13. It served as the fundamental law not only for the Commonwealth Government which was interrupted by the Second World War but also for the Republic of the Philippines until the ratification of the 1973 Philippine Constitution.

a) 1935 Constitution

b) Japanese-sponsored Constitution

c) Malolos Consitution

d) 1973 Philippine Constitution

 

14. When was the ratification of the 1987 Philippine Constitution?

a) February 12, 1987

b) February 25, 1986

c) February 07, 1986

d) February 02, 1987

 

15. A written instrument by which the fundamental powers of the government are established, limited and defined and by which these powers are distributed among the several departments or branches for their safe and useful exercise for the benefit of the people.

a) laws

b) jurisprudence

c) legislation

d) constitution

 

16. How is constitution distinguished from statute?

a) A constitution is a legislation direct from the people’s representative while a statute is a legislation direct from the people.

b) A constitution merely states the general framework of the law and the government, while a statute provides the details of the subject of which it treats/

c) A constitution is intended primarily to meet existing conditions only while a statute is intended not merely to meet existing conditions but to govern the future.

d) b and c

 

17. What are the requisites of a good written constitution?

a) brief

b) broad

c) definite

d) all of these

 

18. Is one constituted or founded in accordance with the existing constitution of the state or according to law.

a) de jure

b) de facto

c) constitutional

d) transitory

 

19. Is one constituted or founded not in accordance with the existing constitution of the state or according to law but has the general support of the people and effective control of the territory over which it exercises its powers.

a) de jure

b) de facto

c) constitutional

d) transitory

 

20. It is defined as the supreme power of the state to command and enforce obedience to its will from people within its jurisdiction and corollarily, to have freedom from foreign control. 0

a) authority

b) police power

c) autonomy

d) none of these

 

21. It is the power of the state to take private property for public purpose with just compensation.

a) authority

b) police power

c) autonomy

d) power of eminent domain

 

22. Is one in which the powers of government are divided between two sets or organs, one for national affairs and the other for local affairs, each organ being supreme within its own sphere.

a) parliamentary government

b) presidential government

c) federal government

d) bicameral government

 

23. It is the power of the state to prescribed rules and regulations for the good and welfare of the state and its people.

a) police power

b) taxation

c) power of eminent domain

d) constitutional authority

 

24. Which branch of the government is supreme over the other?

a) executive

b) legislative

c) judiciary

d) none of these

 

25. What is the basic purpose of police power?

a) to promote and preserve public health.

b) to protect public morals.

c) to defray the necessary expenses of the government

d) a and b

 

26. It constitutes the theory of taxation, which provides that the existence of government is a necessity; that government cannot continue without means to pay its expenses; and that for these means it has a right to compel its citizens and property within its limits to contribute.

a) power of taxation

b) reciprocal obligations

c) benefits-received principle

d) lifeblood theory

 

27. It asserts that the early states must have been formed by deliberate and voluntary compact among the people to form a society and organize government for their common good.

a) divine right theory

b) necessity or force theory

c) paternalistic theory

d) social contract theory

 

28. The freedom of the state to carry out its activities without subjection to or control by other states.

a) internal sovereignty

b) independence

c) interdependence

d) none of these

 

29. This refers to the inhabitants living within the state.

a) community

b) society

c) people

d) nation

 

30. This governmental functions involve the protection of society and its members, the security of persons and property, the administration of justice, the preservation of the state from external danger and dealings of the state with foreign powers.

a) ministrant functions

b) constituent functions

c) police power

d) all of these

 

31. This governmental functions the advancement of the physical, economic, social and cultural well-being of the people.

a) ministrant functions

b) constituent functions

c) police power

d) none of these

 

32. How is state distinguished from nation?

a) A state is a political concept while nation is a cultural concept.

b) A state may or may not be independent of external control while a nation is not subject to external control.

c) A single state may consist of one or more nations or peoples while a single nation may be made up of several states.

d) All of the above

e) b and c

 

33. What is the nature or function of the constitution?

a) It is the charter creating the government.

b) It has the status of a supreme or fundamental law.

c) It occupies the highest level in the hierarchy of laws

d) all of these

e) b and c

 

34. A branch of public law which treats of constitutions, their nature, formation, amendment, and interpretation.

a) administrative law

b) international law

c) constitutional law

d) political law

 

35. The authoritative interpretation of the Constitution belongs to them thus their final decisions are binding on all departments or organs of the government, including the legislature and private individuals.

a) executive

b) congress

c) local legislative bodies

d) courts

 

36. Which of the following instance wherein the rule of the majority is observed in our government?

a) A majority vote of all the respective members of the Congress is necessary to elect the Senate President and the Speaker of the House of Representatives.

b) Rendering a judgment of conviction in impeachment cases.

c) Passage of local ordinances.

d) All of the above

e) a and b

 

37. Who frame and draft the 1987 Philippine Constitution?

a) Selected lawyers and judges

b) regional and sectoral representatives

b) the constitutional commission

d) government

 

38. What is the classification of the Philippine Government?

a) representative democracy

b) unitary and presidential government

c) it also embodies some aspects of pure democracy

d) all of these

e) a and b

 

39. It focused upon the methods and techniques used in the actual management of state affairs by executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government.

a) political science

b) public law

c) public administration

d) administrative supervision

 

40. What is the smallest independent nation in the world?

a) Vatican

b) Republic of Nauru

c) East Timor

d) Marianas Island

 

41. It is the power of the state to rule within its territory.

a) freedom from external control

b) independence

c) external sovereignty

d) none of these

 

42. What is the consequence of absence of government?

a) advancement of economic, social and cultural well-being of the people.

b) protection of society and its members.

c) human dignity can never be enjoyed.

d) preservation of the state from external danger.

 

43. Is one in which the supreme and final authority is in the hands of a single person without regard to the source of his election or the nature of duration of his tenure.

a) monarchy

b) aristocracy

c) dictatorship

d) autocracy

 

44. Which of the following does not belong to Philippine territory?

a) internal waters

b) territorial sea

c) high or open seas

d) Philippine embassies and consular offices

 

45. Is one in which the state confers upon the legislature the power to terminate the tenure of office of the real executive.

a) presidential government

b) aristocratic government

c) federal government

d) none of these

 

46. Which of the following statement is correct?

a) With people there can be functionaries to govern and subjects to be governed.

b) Democracy has practical advantages which no one can appraise in monetary terms.

c) The observance of the supremacy of the rule of law by officials, individuals, and people as a whole is what will sustain our democracy.

d) All of the above

e) a and c

 

47. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

a) The domain of the state may be described as terrestrial, fluvial, maritime and aerial.

b) There are three branches of the government namely the executive, legislative and judiciary which is headed by the President of the Philippines.

c) The decisions of the Supreme Court are final and executory.

d) The internal and external aspects of sovereignty are not absolutely true in practice.

 

48-50. Enumerate the fundamental powers of the government.

 

II. Write the Preamble of the 1987 Philippine Constitution.

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Logic (Preliminary Examination)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. In this type of examination, encircle the letter bearing the correct answer. In the event that you are going to change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first answer. Good luck.

 

1. It is defined as the science of reasoning or correct thinking.

a) philosophy

b) ethics

c) logic

d) psychology

 

2. What is the task of logic?

a) To sought whether an argument is good or otherwise.

b) The investigation of the actual reasoning.

c) To distinguish correct reasoning from incorrect reasoning.

d) The actual mental or physical process employed by a thinking being when it is reasoning.

 

3. To draw conclusions from premises.

a) imply

b) insinuate

c) infer

d) denote

 

4. A collection of statements, one of which is designated as the conclusion, and the remainder of which are designated as the premises.

a) logic

b) argument

c) inference

d) outputs

 

5. A declarative sentence, which is to say a sentence that is capable of being true or false.

a) statement

b) declaration

c) justification

d) testimony

 

6. It investigates the process of drawing probable (likely, plausible) though fallible conclusions from premises.

a) deductive logic

b) formal logic

c) material logic

d) inductive logic

 

7. Is that kind in which the truth of the premises necessitates the truth of the conclusion.

a) deductive logic

b) formal logic

c) material logic

d) inductive logic

 

8. It represents relatively superficial or shallow levels of logical analysis.

a) predicate logic

b) syllogistic logic

c) sentential logic

d)  formal logic

e) b and c

 

9. It represents a relatively deep level of analysis.

a) predicate logic

b) syllogistic logic

c)material logic

d)  formal logic

 

10.  In examining an argument there is a basic question that should be ask. This include

a) Are the premises logical?

b) Is the conclusion valid?

c) Are all of the premises true?

d) Do the premises support the conclusion?

 

11. When is an argument factually correct?

a) if and only if all of its premises are true.

b) if and only if its conclusion follows from its premises.

c) if and only if it is both (premises and conclusion) factually correct and valid.

d) if and only if its premises and conclusion are material.

 

12. When can we considered an argument as sound?

a) if and only if all of its premises are true.

b) if and only if its conclusion follows from its premises.

c) if and only if it is both (premises and conclusion) factually correct and valid.

d) if and only if its premises and conclusion are material.

 

13. When is an argument considered valid?

a) if and only if all of its premises are true.

b) if and only if its conclusion follows from its premises.

c) if and only if it is both (premises and conclusion) factually correct and valid.

d) if and only if its premises and conclusion are material.

 

14. Logic as a philosophical science, has its own rewards including

a) It assures better relationships among men.

b) it develops and perfects man’s reasoning power.

c) it guides man in his search for truth.

d) all of these

e) b and c

 

15. That which delves into the morality of human acts or the reflection on creative responsibility.

a) philosophy

b) rational psychology

c) ethics

d) social philosophy

 

16. Is concerned with the aspect of form which has to do with correctness or sequence or the following of rules.

a) deductive logic

b) formal logic

c) material logic

d) inductive logic

 

17. Is concerned with the aspect of subject matter or content or truth.

a) deductive logic

b) formal logic

c) material logic

d) inductive logic

 

18. Philosophy comes from the two Greek words, Philo and Sophia which mean

a) love of truth

b) love of wisdom

c) love of life

d) search for meaning

 

19. Is logic a science?

a) Yes, because it is systematized body of logical truths and principles governing correct thinking.

b) Yes, because it teaches its students how to make good argument.

c) Yes, because it develops and perfects the intellect which all artists need in their work.

d) a and b

 

20. Is logic an art?

a) Yes, because it is systematized body of logical truths and principles governing correct thinking.

b) Yes, because it teaches its students how to make good argument.

c) Yes, because it develops and perfects the intellect which all artists need in their work.

d) b and c

 

21. The study of relationships between man and family, Church, and the State.

a) Social Philosophy

b) Cultural Anthropology

c) Sociology

d) Political Science

 

22. The sentences that make up an argument in logic.

a) interrogative sentences

b) imperative sentences

c) exclamatory sentences

d) declarative sentences

 

23. The reasoning process may be thought of as beginning with

a) inputs

b) premises

c) data

d) facts

e) all of these

 

24. All orchids are flowers;

but the waling-waling is an orchid;

therefore I shall give you a waling-waling corsage on your birthday.

 

Is this the correct conclusion? If not, what should be the valid conclusion on this argument? Write your answer in the blank.

__________________________________________________

 

25. All men are mortal;

but Pedro is a man;

therefore Pablo is mortal.

 

What do you call this argument?

a) informal logic

b) categorical syllogism

c) invalid logic

d) immaterial argument

 

26. The term logic is derived from the word logos which means

a) study

b) reason

c) discourse

d) all of these

 

27-29 . all dogs are reptiles

all reptiles are Martians

/ all dogs are Martians

 

Is the argument factually correct?    ___________ (answer yes or no)

Is the argument valid?                         ___________

Is the argument sound?                      ___________

 

30. A sound of music can be heard from U.V.

Therefore there is a program in school.

 

What do you call this reasoning?

a) inductive

b) deductive

c) predicate

d) material

 

II. TRUE OR FALSE. Write true if the statement is correct and false if the statement is otherwise.

 

____________31. In any valid argument, the premises are all true.

____________32. In any valid argument, the conclusion is true.

____________33. In any valid argument, if the premises are all true, then the conclusion is also true.

____________34. In any factually correct argument, the premises are all true.

____________35. In any factually correct argument, the conclusion is true.

____________36. In any sound argument, the premises are all true.

____________37. In a sound argument the conclusion is true.

____________38. Every sound argument is factually correct.

____________39. Every sound argument is valid.

____________40. Every factually correct argument is valid.

____________41. Every factually correct argument is sound.

____________42. Every valid argument is factually correct.

____________43. Every valid argument is sound.

____________44. Every valid argument has a true conclusion.

____________45. Every factually correct argument has a true conclusion.

____________46. Every sound argument has a true conclusion.

____________47. If an argument is valid and has a false conclusion, then it must have at least one false premise.

____________48. If an argument is valid and has a true conclusion, then it must have all true premises.

____________49. If an argument is valid and has at least one false premise then its conclusion must be false.

____________50. If an argument is valid and has all true premises, then its conclusion must be true.

Posted on

Business Policy and Strategy (Preliminary Examination)

preliminary test

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE. In this type of examination, encircle the letter bearing the correct answer. In the event that you are going to change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first answer. Good luck.

 

1. The study of the functions and responsibilities of senior management, the crucial problems that affect success in the total enterprise and the decisions that determine the direction of the organization and shape its future.

a) business management

b) business strategy

c) business policy

d) strategic management

 

2. There are many problems of policy in business excluding

a) the moldings of organizational identity and character

b) the continuous definition of what needs to be done

c) mobilization of resources for the attainment of goals in the face of competition or adverse circumstance.

d) none of the choices

 

3. Business policy covers many aspects including

a) the mobilization of resources by the help of which the organization can achieve its goals.

b) the choice of purposes and defining what needs to be done in order to mold the character and identity of organization.

c) the determination of the course of action in the past that the organization has to adopt.

d) all of the above

e) a and b

 

4. The senior management consists of those managers who are primarily responsible for long-term decisions. They carry designations such as

a) Vice Executive Director

b) Vice President for Internal and External Affairs

c) General Manager

d) Regional Director

 

5. While deciding about the future course of action, the senior management should concern themselves with the resources excluding

a) financial

b) material

c) human

d) none of these

 

6. The origins of business policy can be traced back to 1911. It was introduced by

a) Boston Business School

b) Oxford University

c) Princeton College of Business Administration

d) Harvard Business School

 

7. A term that is currently used to describe the process of strategic decision-making.

a) strategic planning

b) strategic management

c) policy-making

d) business strategy

 

8. It became the prime responsibility of erstwhile entrepreneurs who later assumed the role of senior management.

a) strategic planning

b) strategic management

c) policy-making

d) business strategy

 

9. The nature of business policy has many features. It include

a) the process of degrading the product mix.

b) promotion of divested business from one to another due to price hikes and heavy Taxies/Duties on its present product remitting in losses to business.

c) promotion of lesser expansion program.

d) discouragement of joint ventures with other concerns.

e) none of the above

 

10. In any organization, they are primarily responsible for guiding the future course of action and providing a sense of direction.

a) entrepreneurs

b) investors

c) stockholders

d) senior management

 

11. It deals with the constraints and complexities of the real-life business.

a) business management

b) business strategy

c) business policy

d) strategic management

 

12. What is the importance of gaining an understanding of the business environment?

a) managers become less receptive to the ideas and suggestions of the senior management.

b) managers feel themselves isolation of being part of a greater design within the organization.

c) It will make the task of policy implementation simpler.

d) b and c

 

13. What is the purpose of business policy?

a) to integrate the knowledge gained in various functional areas of management.

b) to adopt a generalist approach to problem-solving.

c) to understand the relax interlinkages operating within an organization through the use of systems approach to decision-making and relating them to changes taking place in the external environment.

d) all of the above

e) a and b

 

14. Is a complex issue and is invariably the most difficult part of strategic management.

a) implementation of strategy

b) implementation of policy

c) knowledge about the environment

d) understanding concepts like strategy, policies, plans and programs

 

15. The study of business policy should lead to

a) enable a student to develop analytical ability and use it to understand the situation in a given case or incident.

b) the skills of identifying factors relevant in decision-making.

c) the analysis of strengths and weaknesses of an organization and the threats and opportunities present in the environment.

d) all of the above

e) b and c

 

16. It offers as basis for building up a mental structure which can help in a systematic aggregation of experiences when an executive is working at middle level.

a) knowledge gained

b) skills acquired

c) attitude in calculated through study

d) all of these

e) a and b

 

17. Is the art, science, and craft of formulating, implementing and evaluating cross-functional decisions that will enable an organization to achieve its long-term objectives.

a) business management

b) strategic management

c) strategic planning

d) policy formulation

e) a and b

 

18. It is the process of specifying the organization’s mission, vision and objectives, developing policies and plans, which are designed to achieve these objectives, and then allocating resources to implement the policies and plans, projects and programs.

a) strategic management

b) strategic planning

c) policy formulation

d) defining strategies

 

19. Is often used to evaluate the overall performance of the business and its progress towards objectives.

a) performance indicator

b) sales forecast

c) balanced scorecard

d) information policy document

 

20. They are typically planned, crafted or guided by the Chief Executive Officer, approved or authorized by the Board of directors, and them implemented under the supervision of the organization’s top management team or senior executives.

a) policies

b) plans

c) strategies

d) programs

 

21. There is strategic consistency in an organization when

a) there is integration on the activities of the various functional areas of a business in order to achieve long-term organizational objectives.

b) there is overall direction to the enterprise and is close related to the field of organization studies.

c) when the actions of an organization are consistent with the expectations of management, and these in turn are with the market and the context.

d) all of the above

 

22. Is an organization’s process of defining its strategy, or direction, and making decisions on allocating its resources to pursue this strategy, including its capital and people.

a) strategic management

b) strategic planning

c) policy formulation

d) strategy formulation

 

23. Which of the following business analysis can be used in strategic planning?

a) SWAT analysis

b) PEST analysis

c) STEER analysis

d) all of these

e) b and c

 

24. Strategic planning deals with at least one of three key questions such as

a) How do we do?

b) For how do we do it?

c) Why do we excel?

d) none of these

e) a and c

 

25. What is the meaning of EPISTELS?

a) Environment, Political, Informatic, Social, Technological, Economic, Legal and Socio-cultural

b) Environment, Political, Informatic, Social, Technological, Ecological, Legal and Socio-cultural

c) Environment, Political, Informatic, Social, Technological, Ecological, Legal and Spiritual

d) Environment, Political, Informatic, Social, Technological, Economic, Legal and Spiritual

 

26. Beliefs that are shared among the stakeholders of an organization. It drive an organization’s culture and priorities.

a) standards

b) philosophies

c) goals

d) principles

e) none of these

 

27. It defines the fundamental purpose of an organization or an enterprise, basically describing why it exists.

a) vision

b) goals

c) objectives

d) mission

 

28. It defines the desired or intended future state of a specific organization or enterprise in terms of its fundamental objective and/or strategic direction.

a) vision

b) goals

c) mission

d) a and c

 

29. It define goals and /or objectives. It sometimes called ideal state.

a) situation

b) target

c) path

d) mission

 

30. It map a possible route to the goals/objectives.

a) situation

b) target

c) path

d) mission

 

31. It is the ideal image or the desired end state.

a) plan

b) see

c) think

d) draw

 

32. It defines today’s situation and what is the gap from ideal and why.

a) plan

b) see

c) think

d) draw

 

33. It draws what specific actions must be taken to close the gap between today’s situation and the ideal state.

a) plan

b) see

c) think

d) draw

 

34. It provide what resources are required to execute the activities.

a) plan

b) see

c) think

d) draw

 

35. It is a type analysis conducted according to the desired goals.

a) SWOT analysis

b) PEST analysis

c) STEER analysis

d) EPISTELS analysis

36. This section of strategic plan merely summarizes each of the other sections in your plan.

a) Key Performance indicators

b) Executive Summary

c) Elevator Pitch

d) Indexes

 

37. It provides a brief description of your business.

a) Key Performance indicators

b) Executive Summary

c) Elevator Pitch

d) Indexes

 

38. It is the process of monitoring and getting feedbacks from processes to fully control the operation.

a) formulation

b) implementation

c) control

d) evaluation

 

II. ENUMERATION

39-45. What are the factors that need to be assessed in the external situation analysis?

 

III. TRUE OR FALSE. Write true in the blank if the statement is correct and false if the statement is otherwise.

 

____________46. Business policy, with its concern for determination of the future course of action, lays down a short-term plan which the organization then follows.

____________47. Business policy deals with the constraints and complexities of the real life-business.

____________48. Strategic planning may be a tool for effectively plotting the direction of a company, however, it itself cannot foretell exactly how the market will evolve and what issues will surface in the coming days in order to plan your organizational

____________49. Strategic innovation and tinkering with the strategic plan have to be a cornerstone strategy for an organization to survive the turbulent business climate.

____________50. Strategic management is in the middle level of managerial activity.

Posted on

International Marketing (Preliminary Examination)

Name: __________________________________

Date:   _________________________________

Instruction: The examination consists of multiple choices. There are 20 items. Each item has four (4) choices. Encircle the best or correct answer. In the event you change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first choice. The passing score is 15. Good luck.

1. Which of the following defines international marketing?

a) The marketing of goods and services across national frontiers.

b) A “world culture” based on fast foods, trendy clothing, Hollywood lifestyles, and Internet education, which will supplant traditional cultures.

c) The performance, in more than one nation, of business activities that direct the flow of a company’s goods and services to consumers or users for a profit.

d) a and c.

2.  What is the similarity between international marketing and domestic marketing?

a) The basic strategies for good marketing.

b)The marketing environment within which marketing plans must be implemented.

c) The strategic business operation and processes.

d) All of the above.

3. On which of the following aspect does international marketing differs to domestic marketing?

a) The basic strategies for good marketing.

b) The basic players such as the enterprise and the potential customers (the market).

c) The marketing activities which take place in more than one country.

d) All of the above.

4. If international marketing is so difficult, risky and confusing, then why there are many corporations bother to expand their businesses across the boarders?

a) Since they can manage to comply all the regulatory requirements prescribed by that country where they supposed to enter.

b) Because foreign investments can help raise government revenues.

c) In the global economy is where the money is.

d) All of the above.

5. Which of the following correctly describes international marketing?

a) The degree of personal networking which is necessary in international marketing is far more advanced and important than in domestic marketing.

b) The decision of an enterprise to engage in international marketing is a strategic decision, to be made as a part of the basic strategy and direction of the enterprise.

c) The decision to market internationally must be based on strategic considerations such as what is the mission and vision of the organization, among others?

d) All of the above.

6. Having decided to enter the global market, what should an enterprise prepare for “going global”?

a) Advertisement of the name of the company and product.

b) Organizational changes, at least to some degree, in moving from purely domestic toward international marketing.

c) New mission and vision of the organization.

d) All of the above.

 7. There are many variables which will affect a decision to sell directly through an international arm. In this regard, which of the following is more advantageous for enterprise in order to maximize control over the international marketing operation and assure integration and standard quality between domestic and international marketing?

a) Separate company for international marketing.

b) Single company for international and domestic marketing.

c) Separate company for domestic marketing.

d) All of the above.

8. Aside from the process or structure, which of the following should also served as basic requirement for success in international marketing?

a) The erection of separate buildings and offices for international operations.

b) Hiring of competitive employees.

c) Corporate culture suitable for globalization.

d) All of the above.

9. It is noteworthy that the firm entering the international market at the beginning should commit to change. What is one inclusion of these changes that the firm should commit?

a) “A long range view” of international marketing from the top to the bottom of the marketing function of the organization.

b) Marketing strategies, marketing rules and procedures, product lines and service policies.

c) Service and quality.

d) All of the above.

10. It is noted that the enterprise/corporation wishing to enter the world market must consider its resources. In this regard, which of the following statement correctly describes that the enterprise/corporation has resources?

a) The enterprise has the capability to produce new products and services for the world market but not as good as that of its overseas competitors.

b)The corporation is capable of internationalizing its existing distribution system and/or developing overseas contacts who are willing and able to distribute its products.

c. Insufficient capital or lines of credit to cover the significantly higher costs of international marketing.

d) None of the above.

11. Which of the following is one of the common mistakes of new firms in the international market?

a) Achieving corporate goals-whether to maximize profits, to increase sales, among others.

b) Chasing orders from around the world instead of establishing a basis for profitable operations and orderly growth.

c) Increasing corporate powers and importance.

d) None of the above.

12. What is the first step in creating international marketing plan in order to integrate corporate strategy?

a) To consider the overall mission, vision, goals and objectives.

b) To establish strategic international marketing operation which can advance the general purposes and functions of the organization.

c) To consider what imperatives arise out of the strategic plan of the corporation.

d) All of the above.

13. One of the most common problems in international marketing is that the enterprises new to the global market do not have a clear enough idea of their purpose. However, a well-focused, effectively organized enterprise knows:

a) What it wants to do, for whom, how and how well.

b) How to custom-design products for specific overseas markets.

c) Who are the specific customers of that country.

d) When to make money.

14. What does “SWOT” stands for?

a) Strives, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

b) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and thoughts.

c) Strengths, willingness, opportunities and threats.

d) Strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.

15. The following are the problems that corporate headquarters’ strategic planning for international marketing, of which planners should be aware, except one. Which one?

a) Unrealistic expectations.

b) Lack of multinational orientation.

c) Excessive marketing and financial constraints.

d) Long process of local decisions.

16. Is empowering another person or enterprise in the target market to sell the product, such as an agent or distributor.

a) Franchising                   b) Exporting

c) Licensing                         d) Manufacturing

 

17. Is the most popular way for global corporations to expand into new countries, especially in the food industry, tourist accommodation industry and even in automobile industry.

a) Franchising                   b) Exporting

c) Licensing                         d) Manufacturing

 18. Means selling from the home country directly to overseas buyers, without establishing any presence overseas.

a) Franchising                   b) Exporting

 c) Licensing                        d) Joint ventures

 

19. Means an agreement to operate someone else’s business.

a) Franchising                   b) Management contract

c) Terms and conditions                d) Bilateral agreement

20. Once this is established in a target market it means that the enterprise establishes an office, promotes the product through advertising and networking in the market directly, takes and fills orders and keeps all the profits for itself: but all the product is imported.

a) Marketing presence b) Marketing plan

c) Marketing strategies d) Marketing management

-end-

Posted on

Humanities 101 (Mid-term Exam)

I. MULTIPLE CHOICE

Instruction: Read the questions carefully and choose the correct answer. Good luck.

 

1. Generally refers to art, literature, music, architecture, dance and theatre- areas in which human subjectivity is emphasized and individual expressiveness is dramatized.

a) philosophy               b) humanities               c) rhetoric                     d) history

 

2. Which of the following is an art?

a) television                 b) thought                    c) dance                       d) emotion

 

3. The arts that have subjects are called ___________?

a) functional arts                      b) aesthetic objects

c) visual arts                             d) representational or objective arts

 

4. Is a technique employed by the artist to dramatize the shape of a figure to create an emotional effect.

a) realism                    b) distortion                 c) abstraction               d) mirror

 

5. The arts that do not have subjects are ____________?

a) non-representational           b) natural arts      c) artificial arts      d) symbolical arts

 

6. Which of the following is an example of objective art?

a) literature                 b) music                        c) architecture              d) colors

 

7. Which of the following is an example of non-representational art?

a) graphic arts                         b) sculpture                  c) theatre                     d) architecture

 

8. The favorite art subjects of the Chinese, Japanese and some Filipino painters.

a) monuments               b) cityscapes                c) human                      d) realism

 

9. He is one of the Filipino best painter who romanticized Philippine landscape, turning rural areas into idyllic places.

a) Leonardo da Vinci   b) Jacinto Zamora       c) Fernando Amorsolo d) Guillermo Tolentino

 

10. An Italian sculpture who made the statue of Lorenzo Ruis in Rizal Park, Manila, as his gift to Filipino people.

a) Jomasso Gismondi   b) Dewitt Parker          c) Napoleon Abueva   d) Ed Castrillo

 

11. Which continent is famous for beautiful museums and churches?

a) Asia                         b) South America         c) North America          d) Europe

 

12. A famous story that tells how the Greeks, unable to batter down the Gates of Troy, hid soldiers inside a huge wooden horse.

a) The Wooden Arc                           b) The Wooden Gates

c) The Wooden Trojan Horse               d) The Wooden Spartan Horse

 

13. Is the art of combining and regulating sounds of varying pitch to produce compositions expressive of various ideas and emotions that are pleasing.

a) dance                      b)music                         c) literature                  d) theatre

 

14. What is the traditional folk dance of the Maranaw which is often performed during weddings?

a) singkil                      b) carinosa                   c) tinikling                    d) pandango sa ilaw

 

15. The art of carving, molding, welding or producing works of art in three dimensions.

a) crafting                    b) architecture              c) fitting                       d) sculpture

 

16. A Filipino artist who made the People Power Monument in EDSA.

a) Guillermo Tolentino                        b) Fernando Amorsolo

c) Ed Castrillo                                    d) Epifanio Delos Santos

 

17. It denotes the means by which an artist communicates his idea. It is the stuff out of which he creates a work of art.

a) aesthetic pleasure   b) thinking                    c) surrealism                 d) medium

 

18. Are those whose mediums can be seen and which occupy space.

a) visual or space arts b) still life                    c) non-objective arts     d) nature

 

19. It is regarded as a combination of realism and distortion.

a) surrealism                b) combined arts          c) objective arts           d) abstraction

 

20. Is the manner in which the artist controls his mediums to achieve the desired effect.

a) balance                   b) technique                 c) harmony                   d) proportion

 

II. TRUE OR FALSE

Instruction: Write true if the statement is correct, and false if the statement is otherwise. Write your answer in your examination booklet.

 

________21. Some arts have subjects, others do not.

________22. Music, architecture, and many of the functional arts are non-representational.

________23. The two sources of music in its origin are dance and rituals.

________24. Music has therapeutic value.

________25. Arts do not have physical function.

________26. Art is an imitation.

________27. Art has social function.

________28. All arts afford man moments of relaxation and spiritual happiness, which is a

reflection of an internal happiness.

________29. The non-objective arts present descriptions, stories or references to identifiable

objects or symbols.

________30. The artist has a limited freedom to choose his subject of art.

 

III. Instruction: Listed in the box are the different mediums of visual arts. Choose the correct answer from the box for each description given in the next succeeding items. Write only the letter of your answer in your examination booklet.

________31. This painting on a moist plaster surface with colors ground in water of a limewater mixture. (fresco)

________32. This is a stick of dried paste made of pigments ground with chalk and compounded with gum water. Pastel

________33. A medium which is difficult to handle because it is difficult to produce warm and rich tones. (water

________34. Are mineral pigments mixed with egg yolk or egg white and ore. (tempera

________35. This is one of the early mediums used by the Egyptians for the painted portrait on mummy cases. (encaustic

________36. This medium is used popularly by contemporary painters because of the transparency and quick-drying characteristics of water color and the flexibility of oil combined. (acrylic

________37. Is one of the most expensive art activities today because of the prohibitive cost of materials. (oil

________38. Is a picture or decoration made of small pieces of inlaid colored stones or glass called “tesserae”, which most often are cut in into squares glued on a surface with plaster or cement. (mosaic

________39. This is a fabric consisting of a warp upon which colored threads are woven by hand to produce a design, often pictorial and for all hangings and furniture covering. (tapestry

________40. As an artwork, it is common in Gothic Cathedrals and churches. This is made by combining many small pieces of colored glass which are held together by bands of lead. (stained

________41. Is usually done on paper, using pencil, pen and ink, or charcoal. Drawing

________42. Are pigments bound by wax and compressed into painted sticks used for drawing especially among children in the elementary grades. Crayons

________43. Is a brown pigment extracted from the soot of wood, and often used in pen and wash drawings. Bistre

________44. These are carbonaceous materials obtained by heating wood or other organic substances in the absence of air. Charcoal

________45. In this medium, the artist has technique of drawing with a silver stylus on specially prepared paper to produce a thin grayish line that was popular during the Renaissance period. Silver point

________46. Is anything printed on a surface that is a direct result from a duplicating process. Printmaking

________47. This is the art of forming designs by cutting, corrosion by acids. Engraving

________48. This is made from a piece of wood. Woodcut

________49. Involves the cutting away from a block of wood or linoleum the parts of the design that the artist wants to be seen, leaving the portion of a design to stand out on a block or on the linoleum. relief

________50. Is a printing process in which the design or the text is engraved into the surface of the place and the ink is transferred to paper from the groover. Intaglio

 

-end-

Posted on

Middle Term Examination (Entrepreneurship)

Name: ___________________________________ Date: _______________________

Instruction: The examination consists of 50 items. In Part I hereof, identify and write the correct answers. In Part II, write true if the statement is correct and false if the statement is otherwise. In Part III- multiple choice answers, encircle the correct answer. In the event that you are going to change your answer, put a straight line across the letter of your first answer. The passing score is 37. Good luck.

I. IDENTIFICATION

1. What do you call a person who starts an enterprise?
2-4. What are the factors of production?
5-7. What are the three (3) phases used for entrepreneurial education?
8-10. What are the three (3) main functions of an entrepreneur?
11. Who ranked 1st in the Forbes Richest Billionaire in the year 2013?
12. What French word does the word entrepreneur stemmed from?
13. Among the factors of production, which one is the most important?

II. TRUE OR FALSE

___________14. An entrepreneur is a person without a high need for achievement.
___________15. Recent new species discoveries are examples entrepreneurial ideas.
___________16. Intrapreneurs are not entrepreneurs at all.
___________17. Entrepreneurship is a creative activity. It is the ability to create and build something from practically nothing.
___________18. Entrepreneurship is not equally applicable to big and small businesses, to economic and non-economic activities.
___________19. A country might remain backward not because of lack of natural resources or dearth of capital but because of lack of
entrepreneurial talents.
___________20. An entrepreneur assumes financial, material and psychological risks. Likewise a manager.
___________21. A manager is his own boss.
___________22. An enterprise is not a business venture.
___________23. Entrepreneurs are born and not made.

III. MULTIPLE CHOICES

24. It signifies a continuous, ever evolving, ever expanding opportunity for personal as well as business growth and development.
a) wage employment b) entrepreneur c) career d) entrepreneurship

25. Is considered as career in your own business.
a) wage employment b) entrepreneur c) career d) entrepreneurship

26. Is one which engaged in routine work carried on for others for which he receives salary or wages.
a) wage employment b) job c) assigned task d) work

27. Is the terminal stage of the entrepreneurial process wherein after setting up a venture one looks for diversification and growth.
a) self-employment b) entrepreneuring c) income generation d) entrepreneurship

28. Is the initial stage in the entrepreneurial process in which one tries to generate surplus or profit.
a) self-employment b) entrepreneuring c) income generation d) fixed deposit

29. Is the second stage in the entrepreneurial process and refers to an individual’s fulltime involvement in his own occupation.
a) self-employment b) setting-up business c) income generation d) career preparation

30. It is viewed by the economists as a fourth factor of production.
a) human b) capital c) entrepreneur d) natural resources

31. Is some who perceives opportunity, organizes resources needed for exploiting that opportunity and exploits it.
a) innovator b) inventor c) manager d) entrepreneur

32. Which of the following is an example of entrepreneurial ideas?
a) ATMs b) washing machine c) mobile phones d) all of the choices e) none of the choices

33. Is an entrepreneur within an already established organization.
a) businessman b) owner c) intrapreneur d) ultrapreneur

34. It is a process of action an entrepreneur undertakes to establish his enterprise.
a) entrepreneurship b) starting-up a business c) building enterprise d) setting-up venture

35. Is the attitude of mind to seek opportunities, take calculated risk and derive benefits by setting up a venture.
a) entrepreneurship b) setting-up business c) building enterprise d) intrapreneuring

36. Is the business organization that is formed and which provides goods and services, creates jobs, contributes to national income, exports and over all economic development.
a) corporation b) venture c) enterprise d) business trusts

37. Because of the latent entrepreneurial talents, which of the following country that able to alter the direction of their national economies?
a) Philippines b) Russia c) U.S. d) Taiwan

38. Entrepreneurship is basically concerned with creating wealth. How it is done?
a) by acquiring personal and real properties b) through production of goods and services
c) by hiring competent employees d) through procuring enough logistics

39. It is one of the most important functions of an entrepreneur according to Schumpeter.
a) building up enterprise b) earning profits c) innovation d) organization building

40. Once the enterprise is set up then help is provided for modernization, diversification, additional finance etc.
a) sustenance phase b) upgrading phase c) maintenance phase d) operation phase

41. They take over to organize and coordinate continuous production of a venture started by entrepreneurs.
a) workers b) employees c) managers d) owners

42. Unlike the innovator entrepreneurs found in developed countries who come up with something new-new products, processes, techniques etc., they reproduce the same in developing economies.
a) locus of control b) intrapreneur c) imitator entrepreneur d) ultraprenuer

43. What is GDP?
a) Gross Development Produce b) Gross Domestic Policy c) Gross Domestic Product d) Gross Development Policy

44. When data gathered are being used into a meaningful form, it is already called
a) analysis b) conclusion c) information d) formulated ideas

45. What do you call the application of knowledge to create new products, services or processes?
a) invention b) creation c) experiment d) innovation

46. Which of the following is an example of demographic changes?
a) claiming of new territorial boundaries
b) increasing number of working women and nuclear families in most metropolitan cities
c) climatic change that are manifested through devastating calamities
d) none of the above

47. Which of the following is an example of new knowledge?
a) Pentium chip b) Food processing c) Fashion d) Motor vehicle

48. It is the strongest motivational need in an entrepreneur.
a) innovation b) risk bearing c) need for achievement d) profit

49. Which of the following correctly describe the role of entrepreneurship in economic development?
a) The establishment of business ventures had help the government raising more revenues.
b) The industrial health of a society depends on the level of entrepreneurship existing in it.
c) The increase of gross domestic product percentage is primarily attributed to the surrounding business economic enterprise.
d) All of the above.

50. Based on studies, what is the key to economic development?
a) education b) political reforms c) entrepreneurial development d) constitutional amendments

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Local Government Administration Exam

1. Define the following:

a) local government

b) local autonomy

c) decentralization

d) devolution

 

2. Discuss the importance of local governments?

 

3. By statutory provisions, local governments are considered political bodies corporate for the administration of the affairs of the community within their territorial boundaries. As incorporated entities, they are classified as municipal or public corporations and as such possess dual character: a) in their public or governmental aspect, and b) in their private or corporate aspect.

 

Discuss the dual character of local governments.

 

4. What is the underlying test of whether an act of local government is an act in the exercise of a “governmental function” or is a “corporate act”? Give an instance.

 

5. What are the reasons for granting local autonomy?

 

6. The purely unitary system was imposed upon us by our colonizers as politically necessary to have effective control and administration of the country. While rejecting full federalization, our Constitution has, however, provided the maximum local self-rule possible, consistent with the policy to grant genuine and meaningful autonomy to local governments, including the autonomous regions. Notwithstanding, there is a strong clamor from several sectors to amend the Constitution to adopt a federal system of government.

 

Would you concur or dissent to the adoption of a federal system? Discuss.

 

7. Do you find the grant of local autonomy to local government units extremely necessary for a more efficient local government system? Explain.

 

8. Do local government units have inherent taxing powers? Explain.

 

9. Are you amenable that the term of office of elective local officials shall be three (3) years only, and that they cannot serve for more than three (3) consecutive terms? Discuss.

 

10. Would you back for the abolition of the Board for the Youth, just as the same was debunk currently by some of our law makers by tagging as training ground for corruption? Explain.

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